CAIIB BFM Formulas Cheat Sheet 2026 — Forex, Duration, ALM & CRAR on One Page
Quick Answer: This is the complete CAIIB BFM formula reference covering all 4 modules — Forex (Module A/C), Bond Pricing & Duration (Module C), Asset-Liability Management/Gap Analysis (Module C), Market Risk/VaR (Module B), and Balance Sheet Management ratios (Module D). Forex formulas are covered in depth in our dedicated forex calculations guide — this page summarises them plus everything else BFM tests numerically.
CAIIB BFM Formulas Cheat Sheet 2026 — Forex, Duration, ALM & CRAR on One Page
BFM is the most calculation-dense CAIIB paper. Beyond forex, you need bond pricing and duration (Module C’s hardest sub-topic), gap analysis for interest rate risk (ALM), Value at Risk basics (Module B), and balance sheet ratios (Module D). None of these formulas are individually difficult — the challenge is volume and unfamiliarity. This page puts every BFM formula in one place with the context for when to use each.
1. Forex Formulas — Summary
Full worked examples for every forex formula are in our dedicated forex calculations guide. Quick reference below:
| Formula | Expression |
|---|---|
| Cross Rate | FC1/FC3 = FC1/FC2 × FC2/FC3 |
| Forward Rate (Premium) | Spot + Swap Points |
| Forward Premium % (p.a.) | [(F−S)/S] × (12/n) × 100 |
| Interest Rate Parity | F = S × (1+r_d·t)/(1+r_f·t) |
| TT Buying Rate | Spot Bid − Exchange Margin |
| TT Selling Rate | Spot Ask + Exchange Margin |
| Bill Buying Rate | TT Buying − Transit Interest |
2. Bond Pricing & Duration
2.1 — Bond Pricing
Bond Price (Present Value of Cash Flows)
Price = Σ [C / (1+y)ᵗ] + [FV / (1+y)ⁿ]
C = coupon, y = yield, FV = face value, n = years to maturity
Current Yield
Current Yield = Annual Coupon / Market Price
Simplest yield measure — ignores time value and capital gain/loss
Worked Example — Bond Price
Q: A bond has face value ₹1,000, coupon rate 8% (paid annually), 3 years to maturity, and the market yield is 10%. Find the bond price.
Price = 80/(1.10)¹ + 80/(1.10)² + 80/(1.10)³ + 1000/(1.10)³
= 72.73 + 66.12 + 60.11 + 751.31
= ₹950.27
Bond trades at a discount (₹950.27 < ₹1,000 face value) because coupon (8%) < market yield (10%)
2.2 — Macaulay Duration & Modified Duration
Macaulay Duration
D = Σ[t × PV(CFₜ)] / Bond Price
Weighted average time to receive cash flows
Modified Duration
MD = Macaulay Duration / (1 + y)
y = yield per period; measures price sensitivity to yield
Price Change Estimate
% ΔPrice = −MD × Δy × 100
Negative sign: price and yield move inversely
Rupee Price Change
ΔPrice = −MD × Δy × Bond Price
Absolute price impact in rupees
Worked Example — Macaulay & Modified Duration
Q: A 3-year bond, face value ₹1,000, 8% annual coupon, yield 10%, has a price of ₹950.27 (from above). Cash flows: Year 1 = ₹80, Year 2 = ₹80, Year 3 = ₹1,080. Find Macaulay Duration and Modified Duration.
| Year (t) | CF | PV of CF @10% | t × PV(CF) |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 80 | 72.73 | 72.73 |
| 2 | 80 | 66.12 | 132.24 |
| 3 | 1080 | 811.42 | 2,434.26 |
| Total | 950.27 | 2,639.23 | |
Modified Duration = 2.778 / 1.10 = 2.525
If yield rises by 0.5% (50 bps):
% Price Change = −2.525 × 0.005 × 100 = −1.26%
Bond price falls by approximately 1.26% if yield rises 50 bps.
3. Asset-Liability Management — Gap Analysis
Gap analysis measures a bank’s exposure to interest rate risk by comparing Rate Sensitive Assets (RSA) and Rate Sensitive Liabilities (RSL) within a given time bucket.
Gap
Gap = RSA − RSL
Positive Gap (RSA > RSL) or Negative Gap (RSL > RSA)
Impact on NII
ΔNII = Gap × Δ Interest Rate
NII = Net Interest Income
Gap Ratio
Gap Ratio = RSA / RSL
>1 = Positive gap, <1 = Negative gap, =1 = Zero gap
Worked Example — Positive Gap, Rising Rates
Q: A bank has RSA = ₹500 crore and RSL = ₹350 crore in the 0–1 year bucket. Interest rates rise by 1%. Find the Gap and the impact on Net Interest Income.
ΔNII = Gap × Δ Interest Rate = 150 × 1% = ₹1.5 crore increase
With a positive gap, rising rates INCREASE NII (more assets reprice upward than liabilities)
4. Market Risk — Value at Risk (VaR)
VaR (Parametric Method)
VaR = Z × σ × √t × Portfolio Value
Z = confidence level factor, σ = volatility (daily), t = holding period (days)
Z-values to memorise
95% confidence → Z = 1.65
99% confidence → Z = 2.33
Worked Example
Q: A forex portfolio is worth ₹50 crore. Daily volatility (σ) is 1.2%. Find the 1-day VaR at 99% confidence.
= 2.33 × 0.012 × 1 × 50,00,00,000
= 0.02796 × 50,00,00,000
= ₹13,98,000
There is a 99% confidence that the portfolio will not lose more than ₹13.98 lakh in a single day.
5. Balance Sheet Management Ratios
| Ratio | Formula | What it Shows |
|---|---|---|
| Net Interest Margin (NIM) | NII / Average Earning Assets × 100 | Core profitability from lending/investing |
| Spread | Yield on Assets − Cost of Funds | Gross interest rate margin before costs |
| Burden | Non-Interest Expense − Non-Interest Income | Net non-fund-based cost; lower is better |
| Net Interest Income (NII) | Interest Income − Interest Expense | Absolute interest profit |
| Cost of Deposits | Interest Paid on Deposits / Average Deposits × 100 | Funding cost efficiency |
| Yield on Advances | Interest on Advances / Average Advances × 100 | Return from the loan book |
| CRAR (Basel III) | (Tier I + Tier II) / RWA × 100 | Capital adequacy; min 11.5% in India |
| LCR | HQLA / Net Cash Outflows (30-day) ≥ 100% | Short-term liquidity buffer |
Note on CRAR and LCR: These ratios are tested in both ABM (Module D — Compliance) and BFM (Module D — Balance Sheet Management). The formula is identical; only the context of the question changes. See our ABM Formulas Cheat Sheet for the complete Basel ratio table including Tier I, CET1, and Leverage Ratio.
All BFM Formulas — One Reference Table
| Formula Name | Expression | Module |
|---|---|---|
| Cross Rate | FC1/FC2 × FC2/FC3 | A/C — Forex |
| Forward Rate | Spot ± Swap Points | A/C — Forex |
| Interest Rate Parity | S×(1+r_d·t)/(1+r_f·t) | A/C — Forex |
| Bond Price | Σ[C/(1+y)ᵗ] + FV/(1+y)ⁿ | C — Treasury |
| Macaulay Duration | Σ[t·PV(CFₜ)] / Price | C — Treasury |
| Modified Duration | Macaulay Duration / (1+y) | C — Treasury |
| Price Change % | −MD × Δy × 100 | C — Treasury |
| Gap | RSA − RSL | C — ALM |
| NII Impact | Gap × ΔInterest Rate | C — ALM |
| VaR | Z × σ × √t × Portfolio Value | B — Risk Mgmt |
| NIM | NII / Avg Earning Assets × 100 | D — Balance Sheet |
| Spread | Yield on Assets − Cost of Funds | D — Balance Sheet |
| Burden | Non-Int Exp − Non-Int Income | D — Balance Sheet |
| CRAR | (Tier I + Tier II) / RWA × 100 | D — Balance Sheet |
| LCR | HQLA / Net Cash Outflows ≥ 100% | D — Balance Sheet |
Frequently Asked Questions — BFM Formulas
Which BFM formula category has the most exam weight?
Forex (30–35 marks) is the largest, followed by bond pricing/duration and ALM/gap analysis combined (roughly 15–20 marks), then balance sheet ratios (10–12 marks), and VaR/market risk (5–8 marks). Prioritise your study time in that order.
Is duration calculation difficult to learn?
The concept is straightforward once you see one worked example — it’s a weighted average of when you receive cash flows. The arithmetic is repetitive (multiple PV calculations) rather than conceptually hard. Practice 5–6 duration problems and the process becomes automatic. The bigger trap is forgetting to discount the final cash flow’s redemption value along with its coupon.
Do I need to memorise present value factor tables?
No — use the calculator provided in the CBT exam to compute (1+y)ⁿ directly. You don’t need PV tables. What you must know is the formula structure and which numbers go in the numerator versus denominator.
What’s the easiest way to remember the Gap Analysis rules?
Think of it as “Positive Gap likes rising rates, Negative Gap likes falling rates.” A positive gap means more assets reprice than liabilities — so when rates rise, your income rises faster than your costs. The reverse logic applies for negative gap. Draw this out once on paper and the four scenarios become intuitive.
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